One of my commenters, — anonymous" by name — referring to a criticism I made of Roger Nicole, posted this comment:
Anonymous said...
Remember that Nicole used the alleged emphatic repudiation to bolster the idea that Calvin taught particularism in the atonement. But in this quote we see Calvin distinctly teaching that God's grace extends to those who ultimately reject it.
How do you explain what Calvin said concerning 1 Tim 2:4:
"Since no one but he who is drawn by the secret influence of the Spirit can approach unto God, how is it that God does not draw all men indiscriminately to himself, if he really 'wills all men to be saved'?"
This quote is taken from Part II of Calvin's Calvinism, entitled "A Defence of the Secret Providence of God" by John Calvin, translated by Henry Cole, page 277.
First, we should have the whole quotation:
Since no one but he who is drawn by the secret influence of the Spirit can approach unto God, how is it that God does not draw all men indiscriminately to himself, if he really "willeth all men to be saved" (in the common meaning of the expression)?
Look at the emphasized part of that sentence. Calvin is speaking here of a particular conception of God's will, i.e., the conception of his opponent (who misrepresented Calvin's view as akin to fatalism and appears to have held some form of absolute universalism).
The kind of will that Calvin opposed here was an utterly equal will, such as might result in all men hearing the gospel and all men being the objects of the effectual work of the Spirit. He certainly does oppose that view of God's willing all men to be saved. But Calvin does not, in opposing this view of God's will, thereby oppose any and every view of God's willing all men to be saved. Consider this quote from the same context:
But how, and in what sense it is, that God willeth all men to be saved is a matter not here to be inquisitively discussed.
Secret Providence, page 277. This suggests that there is some sense, in Calvin's mind, in which God does indeed will that all men should be saved. For example, he does say elsewhere (in his commentary on 1Timothy 2:4) that God wishes that all men should hear the gospel. And in an earlier place in Secret Providence he says, "in as far as God 'willeth that all should come unto repentance,' in so far He willeth that no one should perish...." (page 276). And "Nay, if God Himself, who exhorts all men to repentance by His voice.... (page 277). This concept appears in many other places throughout Calvin's body of work.
This concept is tempered, to be sure, by Calvin's strong predestinarianism; but it is equally true that Calvin's predestinarianism is tempered by his view of God's will that all men be saved. Calvin often represents God to us as an indulgent and loving Father, who pleads for the salvation of all men.
The point here is that we have to understand Calvin's view of "God wills", in this passage. It is never wise to blindly latch on to a quote in the hopes that it will comfort us when we run into a difficulty in reading Calvin.
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Good understanding of the entirety of Calvin's theology. This is where the problems usually lie, in that, some don't read the whole of one's theology, or they don't like the whole of one's theology, or in this case, the whole of the quote, so they leave out the part they don't like. Either way...it's dishonest or lack of study.
Good post.
Calvin often represents God to us as an indulgent and loving Father, who pleads for the salvation of all men.
You need to read Calvin's commentary on this passage again, for no universal desire or will for the salvation for all can be inferred from anything Calvin wrote. He says; "the present discourse relates to classes of
men, and not to individual persons; for his sole object is, to include in this number princes and foreign nations."
Calvin exegetes this passage as has all Reformed men since and that "all" is a reference to various classes and ranks of men. Nothing in either the original citation, your additions, or from his commentary supports the idea that Calvin believed that God desires or wills the salvation of all men head for head -- much less that Christ's cross works extends to Judas and other reprobates.
But evidently your linguistic gymnastics impressed at least one reader who had his ears tickled. ;-)
Anonymous criticizes me as engaging in "linguistic gymnastics" and suggests I need to reread Calvin's commentary. Well, here is something from that commentary that does indeed suggest a universal desire or will: "... God wishes that the gospel should be proclaimed to all without exception. Now the preaching of the gospel gives life; and hence he justly concludes that God invites all equally to partake salvation." No gymnastics required here, other than to try to explain it away.
"here is something from that commentary that does indeed suggest a universal desire or will: "... God wishes that the gospel should be proclaimed to all without exception . . . .
You're wrong Steve and this is another example of trying to infer something in the indicative (desire) from something written in the imperative (the universal proclamation of the gospel).
Christians are commanded to preach the gospel to all men in every nation, but you can't infer from this a desire on the part of God for the salvation of all men or that all men will respond positively to that message.
It doesn't follow.
You're reading your own theology into Calvin again. Ironically, Calvin refutes the error of your position in his commentary of this critical passage and you don't even notice.
Anonymous says "reading your own theology into Calvin..." That's laughable. Here's more of Calvin from 2:4:
"And may come to the acknowledgment of the truth. Lastly, he demonstrates that God has at heart the salvation of all, because he invites all to the acknowledgment of his truth. This belongs to that kind of argument in which the cause is proved from the effect; for, if “the gospel is the power of God for salvation to every one that believeth,” (Romans 1:16,) it is certain that all those to whom the gospel is addressed are invited to the hope of eternal life.
End of quote from Calvin. Now I ask, is Calvin writing in the imperative when he says "God has at heart the salvation of all?"
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